One caller (who blamed the Zionists for all of our ills) talked about how controlled the media and this and that. The truth is that Vatican/Jesuit links are all over politics, religion, government, and other spheres of influences. For example, Jesuit trained Sean Hannity is on FOX. Knight of St. Gregory Rupert Murdoch heads the FOX News Corporation. Many Knights of Malta (composed of many billionares), Knights of Columbus (who own the Yankee Stadium), and Opus Dei have tons of money and control a wide variety of corporate power. Also, the Vatican still is the strongest religious institution in the world owning universities, supports the illegal immigration agenda, hundreds of heads of state met with Pope from time to time, involved in the New Age Movement (via Jesuit Pierre de Chardin, and others), heads the ecumencial movement (which originated from Vatican II in the 1960's), involved in monetary affairs (found in Avro Manhattan's "The Vatican Billions"), and is involved in various countries. Modern Zionism is a controlled entity.
What's the proof. First, aspects of Zionism existed from the pagan Mystery Religion of Gentile Egypt and Babylon (like the Star of Solomon or Saturn The Hexagram symbol deals with "the forces" and "Generation" according to Masonic scholars. This star is talked about in Amos 5: 26 and Acts 7:43 as "Remphan"). Second, Theodore Herzl (a early Zionist) met the Pope in 1904. The Vatican controls 60% of Jerusalem according to Barry Chamish. Third, Europe and America controls Israel not the other way around (i.e. Europe and America created Israel via Cardinal Spellman, high level Freemasonry [i.e. Harry Truman {1884-1972} and Chaim Weizzman {1874-1952} The Revisionist Zionists like Jabiontinsky died off, while the apostate Labor Zionists still have strong power in Israel like Peres], and the United Nations). Fourth, the Gentile Papal Knight Gehlen helped invent the Mossad. Fifth, the Mi6 and CIA are documentated to having more power than the Mossad found in the research of Fritz Springmeier, Eric Jon Phelps, and Dr. John Coleman. Sixth, Shimon Peres submitted to the Pro-Vatican Olso accords, which could lead to the internationalization of Jerusalem.
Seventh, Israel is still reliant on America and Europe's money for its economic and political stability. The Jewish people (who are very hated even in so-called "Patriot circles") and the Arabic people (whom British Knight of Malta St. John Philby {according to Eric Jon Phelps} was pivotable in forming the nation of Saudia Arabia in the 1920's. Philby was an ally of King Ibn Saud. The Carlyle Group is a military industrial stronghold with links to the Bin Laden family (one of its emeritus was {Knight of Malta Frank Carclucci} Even the Saudi gave $20,000,000 to the Jesuit stronghold University of Georgetown. Really I'm not part of group think as claimed by the Jew-baiting duo of WINGTV. If WINGTV wants to bring, then I will bring it and expose them for what they are. I already exposed Daryl Bradford Smith and November 100%. WINGTV claim people like me omit Zionism, but I've exposed the ADL {invented by the B'nai B'rith Lodge of Masonry. The B'nai B'rith Lodge was created in 1843. Anton Chaitkan wrote the Scottish Rite link to the B'nai B'Rith Lodge.} and Labor Zionists for a number of years. Either they are bigots, liars, or both) have been used as scapegoats for centuries. Not every Catholic like not every Jewish person or Arabic person are involved with this. It's a corrupt Heirachy in the Vatican, though I disagree with the Catholic religion. Here's my research (of media control) and it isn't all Jewish people:
http://z13.invisionfree.com/THE_UNHIVED_MIND/index.php?showtopic=15019
By Timothy
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Theres a big difference between most Jews and the Zionists who do not give a damn about Judisiam. As long as a Jew doesn't follow the Talmud and sticks to the Torah their fine and of course stays out of the hierachy haha. The problem on this Earth is the GENTILE closely followed by the Zionist JEW. Orthodox Jews detest Zionism which infact isn't sole Jewish its actually ruled from the Top by the Vatican and really stems to back to Sionism. Remember the Sion's throughout the century and the battles between Templars and Sions.
-2tuff
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From http://z13.invisionfree.com/THE_UNHIVED_MIND/index.php?showtopic=7
> Eric,> > Can you please explain what Nazarene Communism is exactly?
I first ran across this term in Emanuel Josephson's The "Federal" Reserve & Rockefellers written in 1968. Josephson knew that Jesuit Illuminism was the source of Communism, but being a typically thinking unsaved Jew equated the false "Jesus" of Romanism to be the true Jesus of the Reformation New Testament; this error led him to coin the term Nazarene Communism.This is a misleading term as it equates both Bible-based Protestant Christianity and anti-Bible Romanism with Communism. The fact is that all of Rome's Orders are intrinsically communist, the term having a Latin origin. Thus Josephson should have used the term Roman Communism; the real Jesus of Nazareth had nothing to do with it.
Sincerely in Faith,
Brother Eric
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Dear Brother Txxxxx,Thank you for contacting me.To my knowledge, I did not say that Wycliffe used Jerome's Corrupt Latin Vulgate. I have never believed this. I HOPE that I said Wycliffe used the Old Latin Bible, which is the Word of God in Italian. I always differentiate between Jerome's Popish Latin Vulgate and the Lord's Old Latin Vulgate. Thanks for the heads up.Sincerely in Faith,Brother Eric
----- Original Message ----- From: xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx
To: eric@vaticanassassins.org Sent: Friday, January 27, 2006 7:18 PMSubject: Wycliffe and the myth that Wycliffe used a corrupt latin vulgateBrother Eric.....I thoroughly enjoyed your interviews on P.I.D. (Peering into Darkness). I was puzzled by the hosts "middle ground" stance that your information is well documented but that doesn't mean "we" agree with Phelps. However, I hope you do more interviews and make it available on the web.In regards to your statement about Wycliffe using the corrupt latin vulgate, in particular, the corrupted Jerome Latin Vulgate, I think you need to consider some of Wycliffe's statements that tell me he would never have used anything but the Word of God. I am a KJV only.Wycliffe believed, as I do, that the English Bible was scripture (1 Thes. 2:13). Wycliffe wrote,"The clergy cry aloud that it is heresy to speak of the Holy Scriptures in English, and so they would condemn the Holy Ghost, who gave tongues to the Apostles of Christ to speak the word of God in all languages under heaven" (John Wycliffe, Speculum Secularium Dominorum, Opera Minora, London: Wycliffe Society, John Loserth, editor, 1913, p. 74, as cited in Bill Bradley, Purified Seven Times, Claysburg, PA: Rivival Fires Publishing, 1998, p. 11). I believe that Wycliffe concluded from Acts 2:4 that the Holy Scriptures were made available to every man from every nation under heaven in every language.
Wycliffe wrote in his book Wycket, that "...such a charge is a condemnation of the Holy Ghost, who first gave the Scriptures in tongues to the Apostles of Christ, to speak that word in all languages that were ordained under heaven" . Wycliffe Prologue states that "therefore a translator...hath need to live a clean life, and be fully devout in prayers, and have not his wit occupied about worldly things, that the Holy spirit, author of wisdom, and cunning, and truth, dress him in his work, and suffer him not for to error...". Further, Wycliffe writes "...Holy Scripture is the unique word of God and our authors are only God's scribes or heralds charged with the dury of inscribing the law he has dictated to them....:I suspect that Wycliffe knew that Jerome was not such a man and could never, being a papist, be an instrument of the Holy Ghost to inscribe the Word of God. Additionally,1. Wycliffe had access to Hebrew Old Testament manuscripts. Wycliffe said "The Jews were dispersed among the nations, taking with them their Hebrew manuscripts. Now this happened...that we might have recourse to their manuscripts as witnesses to the fact that there is NO DIFFERENCE in the sense found in our Latin books and those Hebrew ones". Wycliffe used the first century vulgar Latin scriptures (Old Latin) was originated in Acts 2. 2. Confusion arises from a classic Jesuit tactic in which the 1850 publication of Wycliffe's Bible (edited by Frederic Madden and Josiah Forshall) changed the wording in the Prologue to "made from the Latin Vulgate" instead of "Old Latin(non-Jerome)". Wycliffe warns of such tacctics in the original prologue "...he shall find full many bibles in Latin full false....". And, "Jerome was not so holy as the apostles and evangelists...neither he had so high gifts of the Holy Ghost as they had...". Further, "...one need not believe that Jerome is free from error, since many other interpreters disagree with him.....".3.
From a 1380 bible's title page...."The New Testament with the Lessons taken out of the Old Law, read in churches according to the use of Sarum: translated into English from the vulgar Latin, by John Wycliffe, D.D. Rector of Lutterworth 1380". Note the phrase "vulgar latin", not the Latin Vulgate. 4. Acts 2 tells me that the Word of God, in this case, the pure Latin scripture came from Jerusalem to the "isles in the sea" (Britain) with the Roman army and the word of God spread throughout the isles (ireland, scottland, etc.) and the Word was translated into the gothic venacular bible, ango-saxon bible, and eventually the Wycliffe Bible. The Wycliffe Bible leading to the King James Bible.In summary, the pernicious papacy would do anything to discredit John Wycliffe. I perceive another jesuit tactic to erase the truth. Thank you for your information over the years and your interviews on line. If you have a list of your interviews in the past, I would appreciate it.In ChristThomas Marcic A Scripture only (KJV only), Saved by Grace through faith only, washed in the blood of the lamb, reproved and converted and regenerated evangelical saint
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